Disciplinary Information FAQs | NFA (2024)

Criminal matters resulting in dismissal after completion of probation

Many states have a procedure to handle certain criminal offenses that do not ultimately result in a conviction. These are commonly known as "diversion programs." Often, the offender pleads guilty and the judge "withholds adjudication," which means the judge does not find the offender guilty. Instead, the offender is sentenced to supervision, probation or something similar. If the offender satisfactorily completes the supervision or probation, the guilty plea is vacated and the case is dismissed. Often, the judge, the prosecutor or the offender's lawyer tells the offender that the criminal case doesn't need to be disclosed in any kind of application. Sometimes, the case is ordered to be expunged from all official records.

However, the CFTC still requires a "Yes" answer to a question in the Disciplinary Information-Criminal Disclosures section even if:

  • the matter has been expunged or the records sealed;
  • there was no adjudication or finding of guilt;
  • the guilty plea was vacated or set aside;
  • the matter was dismissed upon completion of the diversion program;
  • the judge, prosecutor or defense lawyer said that disclosure is not required; or
  • another regulatory body or self-regulatory authority doesn't require disclosure.

Regulatory matters reported to another regulatory body or self-regulatory authority

Regulatory matters, particularly in the securities industry, are often reported in the FINRA's Web CRD system by either an employer, the agency that took the action or the person subject to the action.

The regulatory action must still be disclosed by answering "Yes" to the pertinent Disciplinary Information Regulatory Disclosure question and a Disclosure Matter Page (DMP) filed. The fact that the matter was disclosed in FINRA's Web CRD system will not be considered evidence that the failure to disclose was not willful.

The individual told the firm about a disclosable matter, but the matter is not disclosed on the Form 8-R.

All firms must electronically file Form 8-Rs on behalf of their principals and individuals requiring registration as an associated person. Generally, someone at the firm completes the Form 8-R, including answering the Disciplinary Information disclosure questions, based on the information that the individual provides to the firm. Sometimes, the firm does not answer the Disciplinary Information disclosure questions correctly, answering "No," when the answer should be "Yes" or not filing a DMP for each matter.

Each individual must electronically review the Form 8-R after the firm files it and electronically verify that the information contained in the Form 8-R is accurate and complete. If the individual verifies the information without thoroughly reviewing it or relies on the firm to have accurately completed the Form 8-R, the CFTC considers the failure to include the disclosable matter as willful. An individual should never electronically verify that an application containing incorrect information is accurate. In addition, the individual should not verify the application until all DMPs are filed. The individual should let the firm know about the inaccuracy and verify the application's accuracy only after the firm corrects the information.

The individual's registration or license was subject to special conditions

Some regulatory bodies, including various states, and self-regulatory authorities allow individuals to act in a registered licensed capacity but only if they and/or their employer comply with certain conditions. Commonly these include special supervisory or reporting requirements or restrictions on the type of activities the individual can engage in or the type of customers the individuals may do business with.

These special conditions or restrictions must be disclosed in response to the Form 8-R Disciplinary Information-Regulatory Disclosure questions even if the conditions or restrictions are no longer in place. Additionally, conditions or restrictions that are included in an agreement with the regulatory body (these types of agreements are generally not reported in FINRA's Web CRD system) rather than an order must also be disclosed.

Disciplinary Information FAQs | NFA (2024)

FAQs

What is the NFA compliance rule 2 4? ›

NFA Compliance Rule 2-4 requires all Members and Associates to observe high standards of commercial honor and just and equitable principles of trade in the conduct of their commodity futures business. This includes a requirement to deal fairly with customers and other market participants at all times.

What is the compliance rule 2 51? ›

NFA Compliance Rule 2-51 imposes new anti-fraud requirements, just and equitable principles of trade obligations and supervisory responsibilities on NFA Members and their personnel in connection with digital asset commodity activities, including spot or cash market activities.

Does NFA compliance Rule 2 5 apply to all members? ›

RULE 2-5.

Each Member and Associate shall cooperate promptly and fully with NFA in any NFA investigation, inquiry, audit, examination or proceeding regarding compliance with NFA requirements or any NFA disciplinary or arbitration proceeding.

What is the NFA compliance rule 2 7? ›

Notices to Members

NFA Compliance Rule 2-7 generally prohibits a Member from permitting an associated person (AP) to act as a branch office manager unless the individual has taken and passed NFA's Branch Office Manager Examination (Series 30).

What is NFA Rule 2 9d? ›

NFA Compliance Rule 2-9(d) places a continuing responsibility on each Swap Dealer and Major Swap Participant (collectively SD) Member to diligently supervise its employees and agents in the conduct of their swap activities for or on behalf of the Member.

What is compliance rule 2 13? ›

NFA Compliance Rule 2-13 requires, in pertinent part, that each Member CPO which delivers a disclosure document under CFTC Regulation 4.21 must include in the disclosure document a break-even analysis which includes a tabular presentation of fees and expenses.

What is Rule 38a 1 compliance? ›

Rule 38a-1 provides investment company complexes with flexibility in determining which of its affiliated Service Providers should be covered by its Compliance Procedures. assesses the adequacy of the Service Provider's compliance controls.

What is compliance rule 2 29? ›

Compliance Rule 2-29(b)(6) provides that any testimonial used in promotional material must be representative of all reasonably comparable accounts, prominently state that the testimonial is not indicative of future performance, and, if applicable, state that it is a paid testimonial.

What is Rule 3a 4 compliance? ›

In 1997, the SEC adopted Rule 3a-4 of the Investment Company Act of 1940 (the “Rule”) which provides a non-exclusive safe harbor to exclude certain similarly-managed accounts, such as model portfolios, from the definition of an investment company ( e.g., a mutual fund).

What is NFA compliance Rule 2 8 A ))? ›

(a) Grant of Discretion Must Be in Writing.

No Member or Associate shall exercise discretion over a customer's commodity futures or cleared swaps account unless the customer or account controller has authorized the Member or Associate, in writing (by power of attorney or other instrument) to exercise such discretion.

What is compliance rule 2 30? ›

Rule 2-30 is intended to define "high standards of commercial honor and just and equitable principles of trade" as applied to a Member's procedures for exchanging information with new futures or cleared swaps customers at the time they become customers.

What is compliance rule 2 34 of the NFA manual? ›

Compliance Rule 2-34(a) provides that Member CTAs may include interest earned on actual funds but may not impute interest on other funds when calculating net performance. The CTA must be able to verify the amount of interest earned on the funds if the CTA includes that interest as part of its net performance.

What is NFA compliance Rule 2-9 for supervision? ›

NFA Compliance Rule 2-9 places a continuing responsibility on every Member to diligently supervise its employees and agents in all aspects of their futures activities. The rule is broadly written to provide Members with flexibility in developing procedures tailored to meet their particular needs.

What is NFA compliance Rule 2 43? ›

NFA Compliance Rule 2-43 prohibits a forex dealer member (FDM) from cancelling or adjusting a customer account in a manner that would directly or indirectly change the price of the executed order except under two limited circ*mstances.

What is NFA compliance Rule 2 24 A? ›

Additionally, Compliance Rule 2-24 prohibits an SD or MSP from having associated with it any individual who is acting as an associated person as defined in subsection 6 of the Associated Person definition under CFTC Regulation 1.3 who has not satisfied NFA's Swaps Proficiency Requirements.

What is the NFA compliance rule 2-49? ›

NFA Compliance Rule 2-49 authorizes NFA to require SDs to promptly submit relevant information to NFA in the form and manner prescribed by NFA.

What is NFA Rules 2-49? ›

NFA Compliance Rule 2-49 requires swap dealers (SD) to promptly submit to NFA upon request any reports, documents or notices, including those required by CFTC Regulation 3.3 or Part 23 of the CFTC's regulations.

What is NFA compliance Rule 2 13? ›

For a CPO, NFA Compliance Rule 2-13(b) provides that a CPO's disclosure document must include break-even analysis presented in the manner prescribed by NFA's Board of Directors, which is described in a separate interpretive notice. (See Interpretive Notice Compliance Rule 2-13: Break-Even Analysis.)

What is compliance Rule 2 50? ›

NFA Compliance Rule 2-50 requires CPO Members to file notice with NFA when a market or other event affects the ability of a commodity pool to fulfill its obligations to participants.

What is Rule 105 compliance? ›

Regulation M Rule 105

The rule is designed to prevent manipulative short selling just prior to the pricing of a follow-on or secondary offering and to facilitate pricing based on the natural market forces of supply and demand. Rule 105 is prophylactic. Thus, its provisions apply irrespective of a short seller's intent.

What is Rule 17j 1 requirements? ›

Rule 17j-1 under the 1940 Act makes it unlawful for investment company personnel and other “Access Persons” to engage in “fraudulent, deceptive or manipulative” practices in connection with their personal transactions in securities when those securities are held or to be acquired by an investment company.

What is the rule 206 4 7? ›

Rule 206(4)-7 requires an investment adviser to (1) adopt and implement policies and procedures reasonably designed to prevent violation of the Advisers Act and the rules thereunder by the investment adviser or its supervised persons; (2) review the adequacy of the policies and procedures and effectiveness of their ...

What is NFA compliance Rule 2 29 C )( 1? ›

NFA Compliance Rule 2-29 requires Members to submit to NFA for pre-approval certain types of promotional material designed to reach a public audience through mass media. This material must be submitted 10 days prior to first use.

What is Rule 15c3 3 requirements? ›

15c3-3(b)(1) A broker or dealer shall promptly obtain and shall thereafter maintain the physical possession or control of all fully-paid securities and excess margin securities carried by a broker or dealer for the account of customers.

What is 17a 4 compliance requirements? ›

Rule 17a-4 currently requires a broker-dealer to maintain and preserve electronic records exclusively in a non-rewriteable, non-erasable format (also known as a write once, read many (“WORM”) format). The amendments to Rule 17a-4 add an audit-trail alternative to the WORM requirement.

What is Rule 2a 5 disclosure? ›

The Rule requires prompt notification on the occurrence of matters that materially affect the fair value of investments whose fair value is determined by the valuation designee within a time period determined by the board, but in no event later than five business days after the valuation designee becomes aware of the ...

What is NFA Rule 2 46? ›

NFA Compliance Rule 2-46 requires NFA Member CPOs and CTAs (with reporting requirements under CFTC Regulation 4.27) to file NFA Forms PQR and PR, respectively, on a quarterly basis.

What is NFA compliance rules 2 9 and 2 36? ›

NFA Compliance Rules 2-9, 2-36 and 2-49, as applicable, require NFA Members to develop, maintain and implement an appropriate ISSP in light of the importance of protecting the integrity of their technology systems.

What is NFA Rule 2 45? ›

Therefore, NFA Compliance Rule 2-45 prohibits CPOs from permitting a commodity pool to use any means to make a direct or indirect loan or advance of pool assets to the CPO or any other affiliated person or entity.

What is CFTC Rule 4.13 A )( 2? ›

4.13(a)(2) - Small Pool Exemption

Person operates pool(s) with total gross capital contributions in all pools operated or intended to be operated that do not exceed $400,000 and none of the pools operated has more than 15 participants at any time.

What is compliance rules? ›

Compliance means that a company adheres to the applicable rules and laws. This includes both country specific laws and requirements from the regulatory authorities as well as internal company directives. A range of tools and process can be implemented and used by a company to bring about good compliance.

What is NFA Rule 2 23? ›

Additionally, NFA Compliance Rule 2-23 provides that a guarantor FCM or RFED (i.e., FDM) is jointly and severally subject to discipline by NFA for violations of NFA Requirements committed by an IB guaranteed by the FCM or FDM, and NFA's Business Conduct Committee has initiated disciplinary action under Rule 2-23 in ...

What is NFA compliance Rule 2 35? ›

NFA Compliance Rule 2-35 permits Member CPOs to conduct initial customer solicitations with a profile document, provided that a customer is given the disclosure document prior to investing in the pool.

What is NFA Rule 206? ›

RULE 206. REGISTRATION OF ASSOCIATED PERSONS OF FUTURES COMMISSION MERCHANTS, INTRODUCING BROKERS, COMMODITY POOL OPERATORS, COMMODITY TRADING ADVISORS AND LEVERAGE TRANSACTION MERCHANTS. [Adopted effective April 4, 1988.

What is NFA Rule 2 48? ›

NFA Compliance Rule 2-48 obligates each Forex Dealer Member to file a daily electronic report of trade data with NFA. VIOLATIONS OF NFA COMPLIANCE RULE 2-43(a)(1): IMPROPERLY CANCELING RETAIL CUSTOMER FOREX ORDERS.

What is NFA Rule 4.7 exemption? ›

Rule 4.7 ( 17 C.F.R. 4.7) makes available an exemption from certain Part 4 requirements with respect to the operators of commodity pools whose participants are limited to "qualified eligible persons" and with respect to commodity trading advisors who advise "qualified eligible persons," as defined in the Rule.

What is NFA Rules 2 30? ›

(1) A Member shall exercise due diligence to learn the essential facts relative to the customer, including the customer's investment objectives and financial situation and, based upon those facts (including any information obtained under subsection (c) of this Rule, if applicable), a partner, officer, director, branch ...

What is NFA compliance Rule 2 45? ›

Therefore, NFA Compliance Rule 2-45 prohibits CPOs from permitting a commodity pool to use any means to make a direct or indirect loan or advance of pool assets to the CPO or any other affiliated person or entity.

What is NFA compliance Rule 2 46? ›

NFA Compliance Rule 2-46 requires NFA Member CPOs and CTAs (with reporting requirements under CFTC Regulation 4.27) to file NFA Forms PQR and PR, respectively, on a quarterly basis.

What is compliance Rule 2-49? ›

NFA Compliance Rule 2-49 authorizes NFA to require SDs to promptly submit relevant information to NFA in the form and manner prescribed by NFA.

What is NFA compliance Rule 2 34 A? ›

Compliance Rule 2-34(a) provides that Member CTAs may include interest earned on actual funds but may not impute interest on other funds when calculating net performance. The CTA must be able to verify the amount of interest earned on the funds if the CTA includes that interest as part of its net performance.

What is NFA compliance rules 2 9 and 2-36? ›

NFA Compliance Rules 2-9, 2-36 and 2-49, as applicable, require NFA Members to develop, maintain and implement an appropriate ISSP in light of the importance of protecting the integrity of their technology systems.

What is NFA compliance Rule 2 29? ›

Pre-Approval Submissions. NFA Compliance Rule 2-29 requires Members to submit to NFA for pre-approval certain types of promotional material designed to reach a public audience through mass media. This material must be submitted 10 days prior to first use.

What is NFA Rule 2 33? ›

RULE 2-33.

Notice must be received within 24 hours of such acceptance. For purposes of this Rule, wire transfers and certified checks shall be considered immediately available funds for which notice is not required.

What is NFA compliance Rule 2 30 A? ›

Section (a): General Rule

Rule 2-30 is intended to define "high standards of commercial honor and just and equitable principles of trade" as applied to a Member's procedures for exchanging information with new futures or cleared swaps customers at the time they become customers.

What is NFA compliance Rule 2 50? ›

NFA Compliance Rule 2-50 requires CPO Members to file notice with NFA when a market or other event affects the ability of a commodity pool to fulfill its obligations to participants.

What is NFA compliance Rule 2 9 C? ›

NFA Compliance Rule 2-9(c) also requires that FCMs and IBs designate an individual or individuals to oversee the anti-money laundering program, including the firm's CIP. This person may be the compliance officer that is responsible for other compliance areas of the firm.

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